Roland
Community Moderator
Might be my poor reading, but this sounds like you're arguing that 2d6 is somehow significantly different from 10d2?
With 1d2, the results are 50/50 for 1 and 2, but for 2d2, the odds for 2, 3, 4 are .25, .50, .25, starting to display similar bell curve.
So it depends I guess on what why you are rolling dice. The DnD example was 2d6 vs 1d12 which is going to be bell curve vs brick on frequency of the number of times the numbers 1-12 will be rolled.
Mega compared 50% chance of either getting a seed back or not to a 1d2 which is fine but if all we looking at is a binary result then 10d2 is simply 10 trials of either a 1 or a 2.
10d2 will result in a bell frequency if you are looking at the sums of those rolls for the numbers 10 through 20 but what relevance does that have to our situation with the seeds? As DM if you wanted to work out all the percentages for each result from 10 to 20 on 10d2 you could do that and it would have bell curve distributions for those percentages and then you could use those for the various difficulties of the tasks you want your players to roll successes for.
But in this case it is 50% and 1d2 (Basically a coin toss) is the example that was given for either getting a seed back or not. 10d2 in this case is simply 10 trials. We aren't adding any results together for a range of possible other values.
There is still a bell curve but it is simply the part of the population that hits the 50% after all their trials compared to the population that vary from that.
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